Q: Show
The whole class of goods that will be underproduced or not produced at all in a completely unregulated market economy are referred to as ?? Q:
The internet evolved from a network created by ________ during the 1960s ?? Q:
imperfect competition occurs ?? Q:
_________ describes changes in an individual’s behavior arising from experience ?? Q:
The statement everything affects everything else reflects the principle behind ?? Q:
All of the following would be ways to segment within the category of psychographic segmentation EXCEPT ?? Q:
Externalities are a problem only if ?? Q:
In determining salesforce size, when a company groups accounts into different size classes and then determines the number of salespeople needed to call on them the desired number of times it is called the ?? Q:
A person will continue to pursue an activity up to the point where ?? Q:
Setting call objectives is done during which of the following stages of the selling process ?? Q:
If some gain and some lose as the result of a proposed change and it can be demonstrated that the value of the gains would exceed the value of the losses then the change is said to be ?? Q:
The biggest of the greatest amount of involvement in a foreign market comes through which of the following ?? Q:
Markets fail to produce an efficient allocation of resources, but the government also fails because ?? Q:
Cognitive dissonance occurs in which stage of the buyer decision process model ?? Q:
The idea that when externalities are present private parties can arrive at the efficient solution without government intervention under certain circumstance is known as ?? Q:
Which of the following information forms available to the marketing manager can usually be accessed more quickly and cheaply than other information sources ?? Q:
If a large number of individuals are affected by an external benefit, private bargaining will not work because of ?? Q:
The Coase theorem states that ?? Q:
If one person’s enjoyment of the benefits of a good does not interfere with another’s consumption of it, the good is said to be ?? Q:
The optimal level of provision of public goods is where society total willingness to pay per unit is equal to the ?? Q:
An example of a public good is ?? Q:
Private goods are ?? Q:
The conclusion that free, unregulated markets will produce an efficient outcome breaks down if ?? Q:
The government increases the minimum wage. The National Association of Fast Food Restaurants hires you to determine the impact that this higher minimum wage will have on it industry. This is an example of ?? Q:
When you consume good Q, not only do you benefit from consuming the good but other people benefit from your consumption as well, if firms produce good Q where P = MC, firms will be producing ?? Q:
The total cost to society of producing an additional unit of a good or service is the ?? Q:
If PX > MCX, society gains by ?? Q:
When firms enter a monopolistically competitive market and the business-stealing externality is larger than the product-variety externality then ?? Q:
Which of the following is not put forth as a criticism of advertising and brand names ?? Q:
Which of the following is true with regard to monopolistically competitive firms' scale of production and pricing decisions Monopolistically competitive firms produce ?? Q:
Which of the following firms is most likely to spend a large percentage of their revenue on advertising ?? Q:
Which of the following is true regarding the production and pricing decisions of monopolistically competitive firms? monopolistically competitive firms choose the quantity at which marginal cost equals ?? Q:
The use of word competition in the name of the market structure called “monopolistic competition” refers to the fact that ?? Q:
Which of the following is true regarding the similarities and differences in monopolistic competition and monopoly ?? Q:
One source of inefficiency in monopolistic competition is that since the price is above marginal cost, some units are not produced that buyers value in ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a monopolistically competitive market ?? Q:
Which of the following firms has the least incentive to advertise ?? Q:
In the short run, if the price is above average total cost in a monopolistically competitive market, the firm makes ?? Q:
Which of the following products is least likely to be sold in a monopolistically competitive market ?? Q:
Which of the following is not an argument put forth by economists in support of the use of advertising ?? Q:
Defenders of the use of brand names argue that brand names ?? Q:
The use of the word monopoly in the name of the market structure called “monopolistic competition” refers to the fact that ?? Q:
The ratio of Industrial progress in the country is ?? Q:
When did Pakistan Meteorological Department Successfully experiment with artificial rainfall in Thar (Sindh) ?? Q:
During the fiscal year, 2009-10 gross fixed capital formation or domestic investment grew by ?? Q:
In the year 2010-11 what was per capita income ?? Q:
The industry is the second largest sector of the economy. How much of GDP it accounts for ?? Q:
Heavy Mechanical Complex Taxila was set up with the aid of ?? Q:
Space Satellite Badr II was launched on December 10, 2001, when Pakistan launched Pak Sat I ?? Q:
When did Pakistan launch its first space satellite Badr I largely designed and fabricated by SUPARCO ?? Q:
The first nuclear power plant was set up in Karachi in ?? Q:
The biggest Industrial unit in the public sector is ?? Q:
The biggest Industry of Pakistan is ?? Q:
Which city is famous for the textile mills that produce the finest worsted suiting in the world ?? Q:
The Wah is famous for ?? Q:
Sialkot is also famous for Saddles and ?? Q:
Mianwali is important for ?? Q:
Surgical instruments are made in ?? Q:
Which Pakistani city is famous for high-quality sports equipment ?? Q:
The agro-based industry is ?? Q:
Which of the following is Cottage Industry ?? Q:
The Chiniot city is known for its ornate brickwork and ?? Q:
The Faisalabad is also known as ?? Q:
________ refers to the price charged for products sold to a subsidiary to a multinational corporation b another subsidiary in another country ?? Q:
Guest worker programs usually result in temporary migration of workers from ?? Q:
Multinational corporations ?? Q:
The migrations of electricians from low-paying nations to high-paying nations is most likely to be challenged by ?? Q:
Which business device involves the creation of a new business by two or more companies often for a limited period of time ?? Q:
The migration of employable workers from low-paying nations to high-paying nations will ?? Q:
American labor unions have maintained that U.S multinational corporations have been ?? Q:
International joint ventures can lead to welfare losses when the newly established firm ?? Q:
Firms undertake multinational operations in order to ?? Q:
Accusations of American labor unions against U.S multinational firms include all of the following except ?? Q:
The migration of employable workers from low-paying nations to high-paying nations tends to decrease ?? Q:
Multinational corporations face problems since they ?? Q:
The market power effect of an international joint venture can lead to welfare losses for the domestic economy unless offset by cost reductions. Which type of cost reduction would not lead to offsetting welfare gains for the overall economy ?? Q:
Multinational corporations ?? Q:
All of the following are potential advantages of an international joint venture except ?? Q:
____ was a strategy for industrial development popular in Latin America in the 1950s 1 1960s for promoting domestic production by erecting high protective tariffs on imports of manufactured goods ?? Q:
Which of the following is not an example of foreign direct investment ?? Q:
In autarky the relative price of wine, in terms of beer, in Country B is ?? Q:
G. MecDougall showed in his tests that ?? Q:
Country A has an absolute advantage in ?? Q:
Dynamic gains from trade could result from ?? Q:
If countries were to trade along the lines of comparative advantage ?? Q:
Under free trade, Canada would not realize any gains from trade with Sweden if Canada ?? Q:
Country B has an absolute advantage in ?? Q:
In autarky, when a community maximizes its standard of living its production point is ?? Q:
Comparative advantage is determined by ?? Q:
In aukarky, when a community maximizes its standard of living, its production and consumption point is ?? Q:
In the classical model of Ricardo, the direction of trade is determined by ?? Q:
Which country's terms of trade improved between 1990 and 2000 ?? Q:
The gains from international trade are closely related to ?? Q:
If a country has a liner (downward sloping) production possibilities frontier, then production is said to be subjected to ?? Q:
Mercantilism ?? Q:
If the relative Price (MRT) of T were to increase, then the price line would ?? Q:
If the international terms of trade settle at a level that is between each country’s opportunity cost ?? Q:
The relative price (MRT) of T in terms of S is ?? Q:
The earliest statement of the principle of comparative advantage is associated with ?? Q:
Country B has the comparative advantage in ?? Q:
International trade is based on the nation that ?? Q:
If the relative price (MRT) of S were to increase, then the price line would ?? Q:
According to the principle of comparative advantage ?? Q:
If Hong Kong and Taiwan have identical production possibilities curves that are subject to increasing opportunity costs ?? Q:
The Relative price (MRT)of S in terms of T i ?? Q:
The opportunity cost of one DVD in South Korea is ?? Q:
With international trade, what would be the maximum number of DVDs that Japan would be willing to export to South Korea in exchange for each ton of steel ?? Q:
Country A has the comparative advantage in ?? Q:
G. MacDougall’s empirical results can be interpreted as ?? Q:
With international trade, what would be the maximum amount of steel that South Korea would be willing to export to Japan in exchange for each DVD ?? Q:
In autarky, the relative price of wine, in terms of beer, in country A is ?? Q:
G. MacDougal compared export ratios and labor productivity ratios for the United States and the United Kingdom in order to test the ?? Q:
According to the Principle of absolute advantage, Japan should ?? Q:
The opportunity cost of one DVD in Japan is ?? Q:
In autarky, the relative price of X, in terms of Y in A would be ?? Q:
John Stuart Mill was the founder of the ?? Q:
If the countries were to trade along the lines of absolute advantage ?? Q:
If the autarky price of S were lower in country A than in country B then if trade were allowed ?? Q:
Country A has an absolute advantage in ?? Q:
In autarky equilibrium ?? Q:
Absolute advantage is determined by ?? Q:
Given free trade, small nations tend to benefit the most from trade since they ?? Q:
According to the Classical theory of international trade ?? Q:
The terms of trade is given by the prices ?? Q:
The classical trade theories of Smith and Ricardo predict that ?? Q:
If a country has a bowed out (concave to the origin) production possibility frontier then production is said to be subject to ?? Q:
Occupational immobility of labor occurs if ?? Q:
Unions tend to increase the disparity in pay between insiders and outsiders by ?? Q:
If the real wage is too high in the labour market ?? Q:
Union might increase efficiency in the case Where they ?? Q:
Supply-side policies are most appropriate to cure ?? Q:
Which of the following is an example of a reason why firms might pay efficient wages ?? Q:
If the minimum wage is set above the equilibrium wage rate, then another thing unchanged ?? Q:
Which of the following government policies would fail to lower the unemployment rate ?? Q:
In a perfectly competitive labour market firms are wage takers and the marginal cost of labour equals ?? Q:
If, for any reason, the wage is held above the competitive equilibrium wage ?? Q:
Demand for labour is more likely to be wage inelastic if ?? Q:
A minimum wage law tends to ?? Q:
A decrease in the supply of labour is likely to lead to ?? Q:
Refer to Figure 1. The unemployment rate is ?? Q:
The Marginal Revenue Product is likely to be wage inelastic if ?? Q:
According to the Office of National Statistics UK, a husband who chooses to stay home and take care of household is ?? Q:
IF Unemployment insurance were so generous that it paid laid-off workers 95 per cent of their regular salary ?? Q:
TO reduce cyclical unemployment the government might ?? Q:
Which of the following types of unemployment will exist even if the wage is at the competitive equilibrium ?? Q:
Reducing involuntary unemployment ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a supply-side measure ?? Q:
Which of the following statements about efficiency wage theory is true ?? Q:
If there is cyclical unemployment in the economy the government might ?? Q:
Some frictional Unemployment is inevitable because ?? Q:
The natural rate of unemployment is likely to fall if ?? Q:
Sector shifts tend to raise which type of unemployment ?? Q:
If people are made unemployed because of a fall in aggregate demand this is known as ?? Q:
A reservation wage is the ?? Q:
If employees cannot accept a job because of the costs of moving this is known as ?? Q:
Which one of the following types of Unemployment results from the wage being held above the competitive equilibrium wage ?? Q:
A profit maximising firm will employ labour up to the point where ?? Q:
A miner who has been unable to find work for so long that he has stopped looking for work is considered to be ?? Q:
The Marginal Revenue Product is ?? Q:
The labour force participation rate is ?? Q:
A fall in demand for labour is likely to lead to ?? Q:
The labour force is ?? Q:
An increase in the wage rate ?? Q:
The amount of unemployment that the economy normally experiences is known as ?? Q:
Less demand in the economy may increase unemployment; this may lead to less spending which may reduce demand further. This is called ?? Q:
If the economy is in the recessionary phase of the business cycle, aggregate demand ___ unemployment ____ inflation ___ and the current account of the balance of payments is likely to move towards ____ ?? Q:
All of the following are benefits of the single market except ?? Q:
If the economy is in the expansionary phase of the business cycle, aggregate demand ____ unemployment ____ inflation ____ payments is likely to move towards ?? Q:
In the ERM, each country fixed participant Collectively the group ________ against the rest of the world ?? Q:
If the US economy is forecast to come out of recession because military expenditure has increase then the exchange value of the UK pound will tend to ?? Q:
If one country, with floating exchange rates, has higher inflation than its competitors we would expect its exchange rate to ?? Q:
If currency dealers expect the value of the pound to fall, the exchange value will tend to ?? Q:
Under floating exchange rates, expectations of higher interest rates are likely to cause an ____ of the exchange rate ?? Q:
If the Pakistan receives larger than expected revenues from exports then the exchange value of its currency will tend to ?? Q:
A fixed exchange rate, plus perfect capital mobility ________ the scope for monetary policy ?? Q:
If a nation’s interest rates are relatively low compared to those of other countries. then the exchange value of its currency will tend to ?? Q:
With fixed exchange rates and no private currency flows, when the central bank buys domestic currency the domestic money supply is ?? Q:
The price of one country’s currency in terms of another country’s currency is the ?? Q:
perfect international capital mobility suggests that international funds will be responsive to ________ differentials ?? Q:
The record of country’s transfers of land inter-government payments and money sent by migrants to and from abroad is called its ?? Q:
A rise in the real exchange rate will ________ the competitiveness of the domestic economy ?? Q:
The record of a country’s imports and exports of of goods and services plus net investment incomes and current transfers of money to and from abroad, is called its ?? Q:
A current account deficit means that a country may ?? Q:
The record of country’s imports and exports of goods is called its ?? Q:
If British residents want more French francs to purchase more French cloths other things equal, then the equilibrium value of the pound against the French franc will ?? Q:
Reducing inflation is a more important objective than economic growth is an example of ?? Q:
If VAT rates rise, then costs are likely to ___ and demand is likely to ?? Q:
Which of the following is a possible government objective as opposed to a policy ?? Q:
Government policies that focus on changing interest rates are called ?? Q:
Which of the following can the government not use directly to control the economy ?? Q:
Government policies that focus on increasing production rather than demand are called ?? Q:
Which does the government not control directly ?? Q:
As prices rise. People will want to keep more money as cash and in bank accounts This is called ?? Q:
What is meant by an objective ?? Q:
The demand for ice-cream is lower outside of summer causing lower demand for ice-cream salesman if they cannot find other work, this is called _______ unemployment ?? Q:
In the EMU a country’s competitiveness can change because of ?? Q:
Unemployment resulting from imperfect information in the labor market is called ____ unemployment ?? Q:
The Maastricht criteria for entry to the EMU are that applicants should have ?? Q:
Aggregate supply is the total amount ?? Q:
A monetary union means ________ , ________ and ?? Q:
Cyclical unemployment is the ?? Q:
An individual who is not working and who has given up looking for work is classified as ?? Q:
The single European Act committed ________ governments to a ________ in 1992 ?? Q:
The labor force can be defined as ?? Q:
The main features of the European Monetary system are ?? Q:
When the $/£ exchange rate rises the pound _____ and when the $/£ rates falls the pound ?? Q:
Fiscal policy is weak under floating exchanges rates as fiscal expansion ?? Q:
If the economy is in the though phase of the business cycle, aggregate demand ____ unemployment ______ inflation ______ and the current account of the balance of payments is likely to move towards ?? Q:
Floating exchange rates are ____ in the short run ?? Q:
If the economy is at the peak of the business cycle, aggregate demand ____ unemployment _______ inflation _______ and the current account of the balance of payments is likely to move towards ?? Q:
In the short run the level of floating exchange rates is determined mainly by ?? Q:
If a large car importer in the Pakistan wants to import many cars, then the exchange value of the Pak rupees will tend to ?? Q:
The competitive advantage from a devaluation is likely to be offset by _______ and ?? Q:
If Pakistan’s incomes rise faster than those in most other countries the the exchange value will tend to ?? Q:
In the absence of international capital controls, central banks set ________ to provide the correct incentive for speculators ?? Q:
If the Pakistan takes part in a war in the Middle East, then the exchange value of its currency will tend to ?? Q:
Which fixed exchange rates and no private capital flows, to correct a balance of payments deficit, the central bank will _______ and ?? Q:
If the exchange rate between the UK and Japan changes from £1 = 100 yen to £1 = 150 yen then ceteris paribus, the price of UK goods in Japan ?? Q:
When capital mobility is perfect interest rate differentials will tend to be offset by ?? Q:
The situation when a country imports more than it exports is ?? Q:
Within the circular flow of income, an increase in domestic income will tend to increase ?? Q:
The record of a county’s transfers of shareholding property and bank deposits to and from abroad is called its ?? Q:
Starting from a position of internal and external balance a reduction in aggregate demand will cause a current account ?? Q:
The record of country’s imports and exports of goods and services is called its ?? Q:
In a fixed exchange rate regime, the central the exchange rate ?? Q:
The percentage of the labor force that is unemployed is the ?? Q:
An economy that trades with and has financial dealing with other countries is called a/an ________ economy ?? Q:
Which of the following is not likely to be government objective ?? Q:
If interest rates rise then costs are likely to _______ and demand is likely to ?? Q:
Which of the following is a policy instrument as opposed to a government objective ?? Q:
Government policies that focus on changing taxes and government spending are called ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a macroeconomic issue ?? Q:
As prices rise, there will be costs of constantly changing price-tags and reprinting price-lists This is called ?? Q:
Which of the following is not involved with fiscal policy ?? Q:
The natural rate of unemployment is generally thought of as the ?? Q:
Unemployment resulting from changes in the pattern of demand or supply in the economy is called _______ unemployment ?? Q:
Unemployment resulting from real wages being above their equilibrium level is called _________ unemployment ?? Q:
Aggregate demand is the total demand for all goods and services in an economy from ?? Q:
Which of the following is macroeconomic issue ?? Q:
Classifying discouraged workers as unemployed would ?? Q:
Since 1998 many government have defined unemployment using ?? Q:
Which of the following is the government most likely to subsidies ?? Q:
Satellite television subscription and television detection devices are ways in which broadcasting companies address the ________ problem ?? Q:
The government is considering placing a tax on cigarettes to raise revenue to finance health-care benefits. The demand for cigarettes is price inelastic Which of the following statements is True ?? Q:
A good example of a public good is ?? Q:
An example of an indirect tax is ?? Q:
Market failure may arise because of ?? Q:
If a government were to fix a minimum wage for adult workers, economists would predict ?? Q:
If my neighbor burns garden waste causing my house to fill with smoke this is an example of ?? Q:
In a free market system rationing occurs when there are increases in ?? Q:
A competitive equilibrium is Pareto-efficient because ?? Q:
Economics say that there has to be some from of rationing whenever ?? Q:
In the insurance industry, high-risk customers are more likely to take out insurance. This is an example of ?? Q:
If a maximum price is set below equilibrium there will be ?? Q:
In Nash equilibrium each player chooses the best strategy ?? Q:
A public good ?? Q:
When a market is contestable, incumbent firms must __________ to avoid the entry of new competitors ?? Q:
Agricultural prices tend to be unstable because ?? Q:
All of the following are types of imperfect competition except ?? Q:
If the price in a market is fixed by the government above equilibrium ?? Q:
Tax shifting ?? Q:
An inferior good is one for which an increase in income causes a(n) ?? Q:
A positive externality occurs when ?? Q:
Suppose consumer tastes shift toward the consumption of apples Which of the following statements is an accurate description of the impact of this event on the market for apples ?? Q:
Income inequality can be high in the free market and should be reduced This is an example of What ?? Q:
Which of the following statements is true about the impact of an increase in the price of lettuce ?? Q:
A decrease in demand for a products should ?? Q:
Suppose there is an increase in both the supply and demand for personal computers. In the market for personal computers, we would expect ?? Q:
A shift in demand will have more effect on price than quantity if ?? Q:
An increase (rightward shift) in the demand for a good will tend to cause ?? Q:
The price mechanism does not act as a ?? Q:
If the price of good is below the equilibrium price ?? Q:
The price mechanism cannot ?? Q:
All of the following shift the supply of watches to the right except ?? Q:
A subsidy paid to producers ?? Q:
A monopolistic market has ?? Q:
If the price was fixed below the equilibrium price there would be ?? Q:
The law of supply states that an increase in the price of a good ?? Q:
A shift in supply will have a bigger effect on price than output if demand is ?? Q:
If an increase in the price of blue jeans leads to an increase in the demand for tennis shoes, then blue jeans and tennis shoes are ?? Q:
An increase in income will ?? Q:
We cannot say whether one allocation of resources is better than another allocation because ?? Q:
The problem posed by a natural monopoly is that it faces a _____ This means that ?? Q:
An allocation is Pareto-efficient if no reallocation of resources would make some people _______ without making others ?? Q:
If two firms doing the same thing in the same industry join together, this is known as a ?? Q:
Moral hazard means that the act of insuring ____ that the desired outcome will occur ?? Q:
The social costs of monopoly power arises because ?? Q:
A dominant strategy is ?? Q:
The effect of a tax to offset a negative externality will be to ____ price and ______ quantity ?? Q:
The prisoners Dilemma Game demonstrates that ?? Q:
Taxes creates a wedge between the sales price and purchase price that prevents the price system equating ____ and ?? Q:
The reason for the kinked demand curve is that ?? Q:
Except for taxes to offset ______ taxes are ?? Q:
A natural monopoly has a declining _______ over a large range of output ?? Q:
If the consumption of good by one person does not reduce the quantity available by others and nobody can be easily excluded from consumption, we are referring to a ?? Q:
A monopoly may be self-perpetuating because profits may be used for ?? Q:
Markets sometimes fail to exist because of ?? Q:
Comparing a monopoly and competitive firm, the monopolist will ?? Q:
Externalities arise because there is a divergence between ________ and ?? Q:
Where a tax can be shifted, the incidence depends on ?? Q:
The allocation of resources is not efficient if ?? Q:
If the price in a market is fixed by the government below equilibrium ?? Q:
Tax incidence is the ?? Q:
A public good will ?? Q:
VAT is a good example of which kind of tax ?? Q:
An increase in demand for a product should ?? Q:
Economists use the term Black Markets for situations where ?? Q:
A shift in supply will have more effect on price than quantity if ?? Q:
If the market price is below the equilibrium price ?? Q:
A shift is demand will have more effect on price than quantity if ?? Q:
It is necessary to ration a good whenever ?? Q:
Which best describes consumer surplus ?? Q:
A price ceiling is ?? Q:
A movement along the supply curve may be caused by ?? Q:
Nationalization occurs when ?? Q:
A movement along the demand curve may be caused by ?? Q:
With a positive externality ?? Q:
Assuming a downward sloping demand curve and upward sloping supply curve a higher equilibrium price may be caused by ?? Q:
When supply increase in an agricultural market farmer’s earning might fall because ?? Q:
A reduction in the costs of production will ?? Q:
Merit goods are ?? Q:
A perfectly competitive market has ?? Q:
If demand increase in a market this will usually lead to ?? Q:
Suppose both buyers and sellers of wheat expect the price of wheat to rise in the near future. What would we expect to happen to the equilibrium price and quantity in the market for wheat today ?? Q:
Suppose a frost destroys much of the Florida orange crop. At the same time, suppose consumer tastes shift toward orange juice, What would we expect to happen to the equilibrium price and quantity in the market for orange juice ?? Q:
Suppose there is an increase in the both the supply and demand for personal computers Further, suppose the supply of personal computer increase more than demand for personal computers In the market for personal computers i the market for personal computers, we would expect ?? Q:
A decrease (leftward shift) in the supply for a good will tend to cause ?? Q:
If the price of good is equal to the equilibrium price ?? Q:
If the price of a good is above the equilibrium price ?? Q:
Which of the following shifts the demand for watches to the right ?? Q:
If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for camping equipment, then camping equipment is ?? Q:
The law of demand states that an increases in the price of a good ?? Q:
Quotas are government-imposed limits on the _________ of goods trade between countries ?? Q:
Which company in the United States would likely be most concerned about Brazil’s dumping of steel in the U.S market ?? Q:
For year the U.S government levied quotas on inexpensive oil imported from the Middle East The quotas led to cost increases for U.S consumers totaling $3 billion for oil products. An apparent justification of this policy was that ?? Q:
A _______ allows a specified number of goods to be imported each year, and it not specifies from where the product is shipped and who is permitted to import ?? Q:
If the home country government grants a subsidy on a domestically produced good domestic producers tend to ?? Q:
According to the cost-based definition of dumping, dumping occurs when a firm sells a product abroad at a price that is less than ?? Q:
A tariff-rate quota ?? Q:
The form of dumping that represents the greatest potential net welfare loss the for importing national is ?? Q:
A specification of a maximum amount of a foreign produced good that will be allowed to enter the country over a given time period is referred to as a (an) ?? Q:
A attempts to limit outsourcing of jobs to foreigners by requiring that a minimum percentage of a product’s value must be produced domestically if that good is to be sold in the domestic market ?? Q:
Export subsidies levied by foreign governments on products in which the Pakistan the comparative disadvantage ?? Q:
A production subsidy that is granted to a producer of an import-competing good ?? Q:
With free trade, suppose that the rest of the world can supply calculators to Canada at a price of $30. Canada’s imports would now equal _____ and its consumer surplus would ____ relative to what occurred in the absence of trade. What is the change in consumer surplus? Refer to the figure that you have plotted ?? Q:
International dumping may involve ?? Q:
The reason for dumping is that the demand curve for ABC Co’s computers is _______ because ________ are available from other nations ?? Q:
Governments around the world tend to auction quota licenses ?? Q:
From the perspective of the American public as a whole, export subsidies levied by overseas governments on goods sold to the United States ?? Q:
________ are profits that accrue to whomever has the right to import the good that is restricted by the quota ?? Q:
With free trade suppose that the rest of the world can supply computers to Norway at a price of $1,500 Norway’s imports will now equal. Compared to What occurred in the absence of trade, Norway’s consumers surplus will _____ and its producer surplus will ____. Can you calculate these amounts? Try plotting the information of this table on a sheet of graph paper ?? Q:
Similar to import tariffs import quotas tend to result in ?? Q:
In the absence of trade, Canada’s equilibrium price and quantity equal ?? Q:
A(n) ________ is n example of a quota where foreigners hold quota licenses ?? Q:
By practicing price discrimination, the firm would realize profits totaling ?? Q:
During periods of growing domestic demand, an import quota ?? Q:
The home country government can confiscate the revenue effect of an import quota if ?? Q:
Suppose that the domestic government allows a specific number of goods to be imported each year, but it does not specify from where the product is shipped or who is permitted to import Such a trade barrier is known as ?? Q:
To reduce imports, suppose that the government of Norway’s imposes a quota equal to 800 computers, Compared to what occurred under free trade, Norway’s consumers surplus will ________ and its producer surplus will _______ Can you calculate these amounts? Try plotting the information of this table on a sheet of graph paper ?? Q:
The welfare effects of a quota depend to a considerable extent upon ?? Q:
In the absence of traded, Norway’s equilibrium price and quantity equal ?? Q:
___________ are quotas that lead to a complete abolishment of trade ?? Q:
Under a tariff- rate quota ?? Q:
Antidumping duties are used to ?? Q:
In certain industries Japanese employers hesitate to lay off workers Therefore they sometimes have excess supplies of goods that they cannot sell on the home market without lowering prices. To hold down losses they sell goods in overseas markets at prices well beneath those in japan This practice is best referred to as ?? Q:
The firm would maximize profit by selling computers in the United States at a price of __________ and _________ computers in Japan at a price of ?? Q:
In a tariff and import quota lead to equivalent increase in the domestic price of steel, then ?? Q:
Throughout the world, governments tend to auction quota licenses to their highest bidder ?? Q:
Buy national policies ?? Q:
If a tariff and import quota lead to equivalent increases in the domestic price of steel, then ?? Q:
To maintain that South Koreans are dumping their DVDs in the United States is to maintain that ?? Q:
What type of trade barrier was used to protect U.S auto firms from foreign competition during 1981 – 1984 ?? Q:
Import quotas tend to result in all of the following except ?? Q:
________ occurs when a firm disposes on foreign markets a temporary increases in inventories caused by unforeseen changes in supply and demand conditions in the home economy ?? Q:
If imports licenses are auctioned off to domestic importers in competitive market their scarcity value (revenue effect) accrues to ?? Q:
The form of international price discriminations (dumping) normally associated with economic recession or excess inventories in the exporting nation is known as ??
Q:
To aid its calculator producers, suppose that the government provides them a subsidy of $10 for each calculator produced The amount of imports now equals _____ and the deadweight loss of the subsidy to the Canadian economy equals ?? Q:
A tariff-rate quota is essentially a ?? Q:
Nontariff trade barriers could include all of the following except ?? Q:
If the government increases investment tax credits and reduces taxes on the return to saving at the same time ?? Q:
An increase in the budget surplus ?? Q:
If an increase in the budget deficit reduces national saving and investment we have witnessed a demonstration of ?? Q:
If Pakistani citizens become less concerned with the future and save less at each real interest rate ?? Q:
If the Supply of loanable funds is very inelastic (steep) Which policy would likely increase saving and investment the most ?? Q:
An increase in the budget deficit is ?? Q:
An increase in the budget deficit that causes the government to increase its borrowing ?? Q:
An increase in the budget deficit will ?? Q:
If Pakistani citizens become more thrifty we would expect ?? Q:
Which of the following sets of government policies is the most growth oriented ?? Q:
Which of the following financial market securities would probably pay the highest interest rate ?? Q:
Investment is ?? Q:
If GDP = Rs1,000 Consumption = Rs 600 taxes = Rs 100, and government purchases = Rs200, how much is saving and investment ?? Q:
If the public consumes Rs 100 billion less and the government purchases Rs100 billion more (other things unchanging), Which of the following statement is true ?? Q:
Which of the following statements is true ?? Q:
If government spending exceeds tax collections ?? Q:
A financial intermediary is a middleperson between ?? Q:
National Saving (or just saving) is equal to ?? Q:
Which of the following is an example of equity finance ?? Q:
Credit risk refers to a bond’s ?? Q:
Jamil has ten pairs of football boots and saleem has none. A pair of football boots cost Rs50. to produce. If jamil values an additional pair of boots at RS100 and saleem values a pair of boots at Rs40, then the maxime ?? Q:
If a market generates a side effect or externality then free market solutions ?? Q:
Medical care clearly enhance people’s lives. Therefore, we should consume medical care until ?? Q:
If a producer has market power (can influence the price of the product in the market) then free market solutions ?? Q:
If a market is efficient then ?? Q:
If buyers are rational and there is no market failure ?? Q:
In general, if a benevolent social planner wanted to maximize the total benefits received by buyers and sellers in a market, the planner should ?? Q:
Adam smith’s invisible hand concept suggests that a competitive market outcome ?? Q:
An increase in the price of a good along a stationary supply curve ?? Q:
Suppose that the price of a new bicycle is Rs300 Natalie values a new bicycle at Rs 400 it costs Rs200 for the seller to produce the new bicycle. What is the value of total surplus if Natalie buys a new bike ?? Q:
Total surplus is the area ?? Q:
The seller’s cost of production is ?? Q:
If a benevolent social planner chooses to produce more than the equilibrium quantity of a good, then ?? Q:
If a benevolent social planner chooses to producer less than the equilibrium quantity of a good, then ?? Q:
Suppose there are three identical vases available to be purchased. Buyer 1 is willing to pay Rs30 for one, buyer 2 is willing to pay Rs25 for one, and buyer 3 is willing to pay Rs20 for one. If the price is Rs25, how many vases will be sold and what is the value of consumer surplus in this market ?? Q:
Producer surplus is the area ?? Q:
If a buyer’s willingness to pay for a new Honda is Rs20,000 and she is able to actually buy it for Rs18,000 her consumer surplus is ?? Q:
An increase in the price of a good along a stationary demand curve ?? Q:
Consumer surplus is the area ?? Q:
A buyer’s willingness to pay is that buyer’s ?? Q:
According to French philosopher Jean-Jacques Rousseau the state emerged ?? Q:
Foreign aid ?? Q:
Another term for nationalism might be ?? Q:
Which is NOT a theoretical perspective on international relations ?? Q:
Recent events vividly demonstrate that nationalism is ?? Q:
The balance-of-power system in which four of more major powers competed and formed shifting alliances to avoid any one becoming stronger than any other was called the ?? Q:
Nation states emerged in Europe in the historical period of ?? Q:
Which is NOT a common objective of states ?? Q:
Latent functions of government include ?? Q:
Before the Treaty of Westphalia (1648) political organisation around the world had been ?? Q:
Ideology ?? Q:
Historically nations are impacted by ?? Q:
Politics may be defined as ?? Q:
It is most accurate to say that ?? Q:
In order for power to be legitimate a government must have ?? Q:
One conclusion that may be drawn regarding American foreign policy is that ?? Q:
My country right or wrong is an example of ?? Q:
Which of the following nations can be trusted NOT to explode atomic bombs on the surface of the earth ?? Q:
Conflict theorists see the states functions as ?? Q:
The foreign alliances the U.s has entered into have resulted in ?? Q:
Who created NFT ?? Q:
How much does it cost to mint an NFT ?? Q:
Why do people buy NFT ?? Q:
Why are NFTs bad for the environment ?? Q:
Can I create my own NFT ?? Q:
How does NFT work ?? Q:
What does NFT stand for ?? Q:
What is NFT marketplace ?? Q:
What does an NFT look like ?? Q:
Can you sell photography as NFT ?? Q:
Marketing is both an art and a science there is constant tension between the creative side of marketing and the ________ side ?? Q:
In ________ more customers would like to buy the product than can be satisfied ?? Q:
In response to giant retailers and category killers, entrepreneurial retailers are building entertainment into stores with coffee bars, lectures, demonstrations, and performances. They are marketing a(n) ________ rather than a product assortment ?? Q:
Good marketing is no accident, but a result of careful planning and ?? Q:
Marketers often use the term ___________ to cover various groupings of customers ?? Q:
Many brick-and-click competitors became stronger contenders in the marketplace than the pure-click firms because they had a larger pool of resources to work with and ?? Q:
The most formal definition of marketing is ?? Q:
Companies selling mass consumer goods and services such as soft drinks, cosmetics, air travel, and athletic shoes and equipment spend a great deal of time trying to establish a superior brand image in markets called ?? Q:
The __________ is practiced most aggressively with unsought goods, goods that buyers normally do not think of buying, such as insurance, encyclopedias, and funeral plots ?? Q:
What is marketing management ?? Q:
In business markets, advertising can play a role, but a stronger role may be played by the sales force, ______, and the company’s reputation for reliability and quality ?? Q:
The ________ concept holds that consumers will favor those products that offer the most quality, performance, or innovative features ?? Q:
A transaction involves ?? Q:
Global marketers must decide ?? Q:
The concept holds that consumers and businesses, if left alone, will ordinarily not buy enough of the organisation's products is termed as ?? Q:
__________ goods constitute the bulk of most countries’ production and marketing efforts ?? Q:
In order to describe a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely related in the minds of consumers but are spread across a diverse set of industries, Mohan sawhney has proposed the concept of ?? Q:
Several scholars have found that companies who embrace the marketing concept achieve superior performance. This was first demonstrated for companies practicing a ___________ understanding and meeting customers’ expressed needs ?? Q:
Information can be produced and marketed as a ?? Q:
The age which promises to lead to more accurate levels of production, more targeted communications, and more relevant pricing is term as ?? Q:
In the course of converting to a marketing orientation, a company faces three hurdles ?? Q:
Charles Revson of Revlon observed: “In the factory, we make cosmetics; in the store ?? Q:
Many countries have ________ industries to create greater competition and growth opportunities ?? Q:
Companies that practice both a reactive and proactive marketing orientation are implementing a __________ and are likely to be the most successful ?? Q:
A Marketer is someone seeking a response from another party, called the ?? Q:
Customers are showing greater price sensitivity in their search for ?? Q:
Marketers argue for a __________ in which all functions work together to respond to, serve, and satisfy the customer ?? Q:
In latent demand, consumers may share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by a ?? Q:
Rising promotion costs and shrinking profit margins are the result of ?? Q:
Sales force compensation should direct the sales force toward activities that are consistent with ?? Q:
Who was developed Digital marketing ?? Q:
The term digital marketing was first used in ?? Q:
What are the advantages of digital marketing ?? Q:
The 4Ps of marketing as defined by Philip Kottler are ?? Q:
A website front or home page should include ?? Q:
Best way to make money while you sleep ?? Q:
Google advertising program is ?? Q:
Promote a business with social media is ?? Q:
When the new developed product concept is tested, the next immediate step is to ?? Q:
Site designing for mobile is very similar to the web ?? Q:
Search page engine optimization refers to ?? Q:
What are the two types of targeting that can be done with PPC advertising ?? Q:
Who is the father of digital marketing ?? Q:
Why digital marketing is important ?? Q:
How many main pillars of digital marketing ?? Q:
Digital marketing is often referred to as ?? Q:
Digital marketing includes ?? Q:
Is digital marketing a good career ?? Q:
Which of the following is a type of digital marketing activity ?? Q:
What is not true about digital marketing ?? Q:
How many main pillars of digital marketing ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a traditional forms of digital marketing ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a type of digital marketing activity ?? Q:
What is an ad group ?? Q:
Every website is hosted on a server ?? Q:
What is anchor text ?? Q:
Which of these statements is correct ?? Q:
The best way to improve search engine ranking is with ?? Q:
The sequence of a sales process is ?? Q:
Which of the following statements is true ?? Q:
The extended ps of service marketing mix are ?? Q:
Real-time bidding is a form of programmatic buying ?? Q:
SEO stands for ?? Q:
Which marketing techniques are most likely to pay you ?? Q:
Which main objective of branding is ?? Q:
Website functions which are the most important ?? Q:
Of the following website functions which is the most important ?? Q:
How much time period is required to get a google page ranking ?? Q:
How would you describe what multi-channel attribution does ?? Q:
Location is a unique feature of Mobile Marketing because ?? Q:
Which triggers positive or negative emotions leads to purchase motivation ?? Q:
Customers in growth stage of life cycle of products are classified as ?? Q:
Product development process after analysis of business next step to be taken is ?? Q:
Which is reflected in web design through ?? Q:
Which is normally run by a consortium of buyers in order to establish an efficient purchasing environment ?? Q:
By bulk buying of items, One aim of e-procurement is to increase savings ?? Q:
Which production is related to procurement ?? Q:
Is it most ideal to send a press release ?? Q:
The possibility of website visitors following through on contacting you is ?? Q:
What is the new content management tool for sweet ?? Q:
_____ is a form of digital marketing that describes the use of the social web and social media ?? Q:
Which design approaches help in building sites that are optimized for various screen sizes ?? Q:
What are the key considerations for people in sales while they use social media for selling (Social Selling) ?? Q:
In the first 10 years, the web was heavily used as a static publishing and/or retailing (transactional) channel. This was known as ?? Q:
Why did Internet Service providers clamp down on personal emails being used for mailing purposes ?? Q:
Marketing that moves away from a transaction-based effort to a conversation and can be described as a situation or mechanism through which marketers and a customer interact usually in real-time is called ?? Q:
An idea for a possible product that company will offer is classified as ?? Q:
Media and message are considered as ________ in communication process ?? Q:
Stage in which purchase intention is transformed into purchase decision is called ?? Q:
In Communication process, receiver and sender are classified as ?? Q:
This aims at influencing users who have begun their research on search engines, but not needed that they have visited a brand site ?? Q:
Stages such as conviction stage, liking stage, preference stage, and actual purchase stage are all of the process called ?? Q:
Customer is _________ if customer’s expectations and products performance matches ?? Q:
Procedure in marketing which consists of enlisting opinion leaders as brand ambassadors is called ?? Q:
This is the process of marketing accomplished or facilitated through the application of electronic devices, appliances, tools, techniques, technologies and or systems ?? Q:
What behavior highly involved consumer buying behavior while perceiving significant differences between brands ?? Q:
Which Products like as VHS tapes ?? Q:
Profits related to a new product in its introductory stage of profit related to new product ?? Q:
Which way of consumers feel or perceive towards an actual product or potential market offering ?? Q:
What classified by decoding, feedback, encoding and response are together in communication process ?? Q:
What does digital marketing do ?? Q:
What is keyword in digital marketing ?? Q:
E-business is ?? Q:
What is lead generation in digital marketing ?? Q:
Which one is the best way to promote a business online ?? Q:
A Robust Social Media Plan includes which of the following ?? Q:
What is digital marketing strategy ?? Q:
Promotion mix includes Sales Promotion, Personal Selling, Advertising and ?? Q:
When is it most ideal to send a press release ?? Q:
_____ is an example of business to business services ?? Q:
What is e-business ?? Q:
Marketing information includes ?? Q:
Digital marketing is any form of marketing products or services that involves ?? Q:
What is in digital marketing ?? Q:
What is a digital agency ?? Q:
What is content marketing ?? Q:
In Content marketing the content should be ?? Q:
What does content marketing include ?? Q:
What does CTA stand for ?? Q:
Which of the following does content marketing helps with ?? Q:
What does CMS stand for ?? Q:
Which of the following is true ?? Q:
Approximately how many businesses' content marketing is used ?? Q:
Content marketing aims ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a goal of Content Marketing ?? Q:
To make the business case for Content Marketing you must present ?? Q:
Which of the following is false ?? Q:
Content marketing is not ?? Q:
Content marketing is about creating editing and maintaining content, true or false ?? Q:
Why is content marketing so important ?? Q:
What makes a good content marketer ?? Q:
What does SEO stand for ?? Q:
Which of the following items search engines don't want ?? Q:
For SEO site content should have ?? Q:
What is anchor text in SEO ?? Q:
Search page engine optimization refers to ?? Q:
What is keyword density ?? Q:
Which of the following statement is not true ?? Q:
What does SERP Stand for ?? Q:
What is meta description ?? Q:
What aspects of a hyperlink are not important for SEO ?? Q:
What is full form of FFA pages ?? Q:
Domain authority is a metric maintained by ?? Q:
Pages that are linked from other search engine is known as ?? Q:
If a website's search engine saturation with respect to a particular search engine is 20% what does it mean ?? Q:
Which of the following factors have an impact on the Google PageRank ?? Q:
How long does it take for SEO to work ?? Q:
Which of the following search engine offers a popular list of the top 50 most searched keywords ?? Q:
Google is more inclined towards keywords found ?? Q:
What does SEM stand for ?? Q:
Which on-page element carries the most weight for SEO ?? Q:
What does the term sandbox mean in SEO ?? Q:
Search engine optimization is the process of _____ of a website or a web page in a search engine's search results ?? Q:
Which of the following can be termed as appropriate Keyword density ?? Q:
Which of the following tactics can harm your search rankings ?? Q:
Which of the following can be termed as good keyword selection and placement strategies ?? Q:
What is Page Rank ?? Q:
What does the 302 server response code signify ?? Q:
All major search engines are case sensitive ?? Q:
Which of the following statements about RSS are correct ?? Q:
SEO is to improve the volume and ____ to a website from search engines ?? Q:
What is a friendly URL ?? Q:
Google webmaster tools can help you with ?? Q:
What is the generally accepted difference between SEO and SEM ?? Q:
How do sitemaps help a website with search engines ?? Q:
Indexing of websites on the internet for the use of search engines is done by ?? Q:
Which HTTP server response code indicates a file that no longer exists ?? Q:
Why are long-tail searches closer to resulting in purchasing items ?? Q:
What does the 301 server response code signify ?? Q:
How can meta description tags help with the practice of search engine optimization ?? Q:
What is e-Marketing ?? Q:
Market information means ?? Q:
Which of the following comes under email marketing ?? Q:
Which of the following is not an advantage of email newsletters ?? Q:
Which of the following is most important metric to track email marketing ?? Q:
What technique is used by legitimate marketers to customize offerings for specific customers ?? Q:
Select the features of a lead nurturing platform ?? Q:
How important is the authentication process in email marketing ?? Q:
In which type of email campaign advertisements are sent to target group of customer ?? Q:
Which of the following is correct size of email template before executing a campaign ?? Q:
Emails containing videos have higher open rates and click through rates ?? Q:
What are the goals that marketers should strive for in email marketing ?? Q:
Paid search marketing is usually purchased on which basis ?? Q:
Using white space around an object will ?? Q:
In a marketing meeting you suggested that the company should put more emphasis on email marketing. What is the most compelling data statistic you should cite ?? Q:
A member of your team proposes to cap the subject line at 30 characters to increase open rate and click rate. What points would you emphasize as the primary factors of open rate and click rate ?? Q:
Open rates are more influenced by ?? Q:
How important is consistency in branding and subject lines ?? Q:
This is a term for the number of times that user click on links in a message or on a website: it is much higher for legitimate marketing emails that for spam ?? Q:
Identify the factor that enables tracking of good and bad reputation ?? Q:
In developing your next email campaign you have to make a case to develop a responsive email. What is the key factor of responsive design to persuade your team ?? Q:
Moral control ?? Q:
Hitler led the German people by emotional speeches He derived his authority from ?? Q:
Power is legitimate if ?? Q:
The Pope,s leadership of the Catholic Church is based on which kind of authority ?? Q:
The government is ?? Q:
Government is characterised by a(n) ?? Q:
Legal-rational authority is characteristic of ?? Q:
Political power ?? Q:
Prejudice and discrimination ?? Q:
In essence people need government because ?? Q:
Which perspective assumes that the state speaks with one voice and has one policy ?? Q:
The oldest form of power rests on ?? Q:
The widest sphere of human interaction on an international scale is ?? Q:
Charismatic leaders ?? Q:
For neo-realists the international order is one of ?? Q:
The basic components of the state include ALL BUT WHICH of the following ?? Q:
A 44-nation survey regrading religions found that ?? Q:
Antarctica is occupied by several nations together because no one nations has ?? Q:
Since state and nation are not the same thing the preferred term for individual political entities is ?? Q:
The manifest functions of government include ?? Q:
How many maximum characters are allowed in SMS marketing ?? Q:
What are 2 data-backed push messaging best practices ?? Q:
What are Native Ads ?? Q:
Which of the following is most common delivery channel for mobile marketing ?? Q:
Which of the following options can help monetize a free app ?? Q:
What is the key aspects of sending effective push notifications ?? Q:
Which of the following is not a type of mobile ad extension ?? Q:
What is the full form of LBS in mobile marketing ?? Q:
What is true about 2D barcodes ?? Q:
Which of the following is the form of mobile marketing ?? Q:
One advantage of Mobile marketing is that it is not ?? Q:
What is Impression Share ?? Q:
Which of the following marketing based on very small specific geographical location ?? Q:
More free users leads to ?? Q:
Mobile marketing to-date is most successful among ?? Q:
How many percent of adults primarily use their smartphones to access content ?? Q:
Recently we analyzed thousands of apps to flesh out key trends. Which trend did we not see ??People spend more time with apps if they own a large screen mobile device Q:
In the Freemium model typically what percentage of users pay ?? Q:
Smart link to your app should auto-redirect based on which of the following parameters ?? Q:
What type of devices may not have Google play installed ?? Q:
What metric should be used by an app developer to measure the maximization of Ad Revenue on his app ?? Q:
At stage of user browsing app store page of your app what is the objective ?? Q:
How many percent of mobile web users abandon pages if they don't load within 10 seconds ?? Q:
The transition from a charismatic religious leaders direct example to routine procedures and observances is called ?? Q:
A nineteenth-century model of rote education which imitated the assembly line was called the ?? Q:
The Protestant denomination emphasised in Max Weber,s Protestant Ethic and the Spirit of Capitalism was ?? Q:
The most important determinant of scholastic success is ?? Q:
Liberation theory is ?? Q:
Which of the following is an unintended function of education ?? Q:
From the point of view of Catholicism Protestantism began as a(n) ?? Q:
What kind of individual is valued in industrial and postindustrial societies ?? Q:
According to functionalism the fundamental human needs are ?? Q:
Credentialism opens jobs ?? Q:
Durkheim,s analysis suggests that so-called primitive people ?? Q:
Latent functions of schools include ?? Q:
In animism ?? Q:
In preindustrial societies education was intended for ?? Q:
Which religion includes a hierarchy of gods ?? Q:
Religiosity refers to ?? Q:
An example of polytheism is ?? Q:
Cults differ from sects in that ?? Q:
Religious beliefs are often contained in ?? Q:
Theology is ?? Q:
Which method of child care is best for children ?? Q:
Secularisation will ?? Q:
Cohabiting couples ?? Q:
The reality that lies beyond human perception is called ?? Q:
The noncustodial parent ?? Q:
Religion has the function of ?? Q:
There is a growing realization that divorce ?? Q:
Marx believed religion was used to ?? Q:
The real revolution of the last twenty years according to one sociologist refers to ?? Q:
The perpetrators of fatal child abuse have these traits in common ?? Q:
Among the leading causes of divorce are ?? Q:
Studies have found that ?? Q:
A perspective that focuses on power relations between spouses is called ?? Q:
Child abuse ?? Q:
Among the leading causes of divorce are ?? Q:
Cohabitation ?? Q:
Women after divorce ?? Q:
Factors in the decline of the marriage rate include ?? Q:
Young couples who have children very soon after marriage ?? Q:
Conditions associated with long-term marriages include ?? Q:
The ethnic groups among whom arranged marriages are common include ?? Q:
The first years of marriage ?? Q:
Romance as a reason for marriage ?? Q:
The family into which you were born is called ?? Q:
In rural Pakistan a person must marry within his or her caste This custom is called ?? Q:
Mistreatment or abuse of children ?? Q:
The most common form of marriage today is ?? Q:
The most fundamental function of the family is ?? Q:
In some cultures a women a can have several husbands at one time. This custom is called ?? Q:
The nuclear family form is also called ?? Q:
A kinship system is based on ?? Q:
Which is NOT a new alternative to the traditional family ?? Q:
The family-and particularly marriage-binds its members through ?? Q:
The teenage birthrate ?? Q:
An example of a basic pivotal institution is ?? Q:
Female-headed families have ?? Q:
Social institutions ?? Q:
Divorced men as compared to married men are subject to ?? Q:
The Metropolitan Statistical Area consists of ?? Q:
The high divorce rate in industrial societies related to ?? Q:
The oil supplies of the United States are subject to ?? Q:
Metropolitan areas with a population of 1 million or more are called ?? Q:
A reduction of the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere leads to ?? Q:
Which two factors have engendered problems that threaten the environment ?? Q:
A lake is polluted The fish in it die The algae make unpleasant odors It may be said that ?? Q:
Before ecological problems can be resolved what will probably need to happen ?? Q:
Urban renewal has ?? Q:
The ecosystem is ?? Q:
A ghetto tends to contain ?? Q:
Zero population growth ?? Q:
When metropolitan areas start to merge with each other the result is ?? Q:
Death rates are ?? Q:
A metropolitan area consists of ?? Q:
The majority of the human population lives in ?? Q:
Suburbanization today is based on ?? Q:
The most dramatic change that followed each technological revolution was ?? Q:
Modern urban sociologists in contrast to the Chicago school believe that cities ?? Q:
In Third World countries the factors that discourage birth control include ?? Q:
The percentage of people around the world who lived in cities in 2005 is approximately ?? Q:
Natural resources are ?? Q:
The failure of rising expectations is related to ?? Q:
The emphasis on rural virtues ?? Q:
The stages of the demographic transition model are ?? Q:
A decline in the rural population was due chiefly to ?? Q:
Thomas Malthus sated that ?? Q:
An ecological city is ?? Q:
The highest birthrates today are found in ?? Q:
In developing nations cities are growing along with rural areas because ?? Q:
Population density ?? Q:
Social organization in the city brought ALL BUT which one of these changes ?? Q:
The real problem in population growth is ?? Q:
The urban crisis ?? Q:
Urban families everywhere in the world ?? Q:
Factors in the urban crisis include ?? Q:
Birthrates ?? Q:
The United States Canada Northern and Western Europe among other areas are ?? Q:
Demographers believe that ?? Q:
Birthrates remain high is the Third World because ?? Q:
Which subject is NOT studied by demography ?? Q:
If population growth in the underdeveloped nations continues unabated in 2050 world population will be ?? Q:
The idea that technology changes social organization and ideology is called ?? Q:
The number of births in a population in relation to every 1000 women of childbearing age in a year is called the ?? Q:
Placing workers and machines in one building is called ?? Q:
Overpopulation is a problem worldwide but only in relation to ?? Q:
The technological revolution that led to the control of food production is called the ?? Q:
The processes of cultural change include ?? Q:
The popularity of spaghetti in the United States resulted from ?? Q:
Reform movements ?? Q:
The knowledge of how the blood circulates in the body is a(n) ?? Q:
As a result of social change some members of society ?? Q:
sociocultural change means that ?? Q:
Social change must be analyzed in terms of ?? Q:
Modernization in Britain was not as disruptive as in other countries because ?? Q:
The Industrial Revolution ?? Q:
Future shock is ?? Q:
Which is false of the process of diffusion ?? Q:
Change felt through new patterns of individual and small-group interaction is called ?? Q:
The fact that pizza is now a popular American food is due to ?? Q:
Ideologies ?? Q:
When citizens or government agencies attempt to peacefully correct laws or institutions they are engaged in ?? Q:
Social movements tend to ?? Q:
The Ku Klux Klan is an example of a(n) ?? Q:
Persons interested in saving the whales could be considered a ?? Q:
Redemptive movements include ?? Q:
Many listeners to a 1938 science fiction radio program believed that Martians were really invading the Earth They fled into the streets in panic We would call their behavior ?? Q:
A nationalistic revolution occurred in the ?? Q:
The crowd at a religious revival meeting is ?? Q:
A crisis of legitimacy indicates that ?? Q:
Collective behavior ?? Q:
Which is NOT an element of a social movement ?? Q:
Publics and public opinion ?? Q:
Crowds and masses differ in that ?? Q:
A temporary collection of people gathered in the same place at the same time becomes a crowd when they ?? Q:
People who are suddenly thrust in a situation for which they know no precedent are vulnerable to ?? Q:
A deliberate attempt to persuade the individual to accept a particular belief or to make a specific choice uncritically is ?? Q:
Marxists are most interested in ?? Q:
Change may be experienced at which level ?? Q:
In industrial societies the social class most likely to participate in social movements is the ?? Q:
Collective behavior is ?? Q:
Social movements are forms of collective behavior that have ?? Q:
In the case of the male twin castrated during circumcision ?? Q:
Which is NOT a theory of socialization into gender roles ?? Q:
The media present gender roles ?? Q:
The differences in behaviour between men and women ?? Q:
Identification theory is based on the ideas of ?? Q:
As a person age ?? Q:
Structured inequality of gender roles ?? Q:
Kinsey maintained that ?? Q:
In his book The Inevitability of Patriarchy Steven Goldberg asserts that ?? Q:
The identical twin who lost his penis in a tragic accident ?? Q:
The experience of loss or impending loss of a person to whom one is close is called ?? Q:
The ideology of ageism ?? Q:
Persons set apart for differential treatment include ?? Q:
In modern society death has acquired to some extent a sense of ?? Q:
The elderly are a minority because them ?? Q:
Retirements negative effects are felt most strongly by ?? Q:
Discrimination against the elderly has been especially apparent in the area of ?? Q:
The view that the elderly lack social and material resources to reciprocate in relationships and consequently occupy a subservient status is the point of ?? Q:
Disengagement refers to ?? Q:
As of 2005 what proportion of women were in managerial professional and administrative positions ?? Q:
The mechanisms of upward mobility of minorities did NOT include ?? Q:
Feminist theory bas borrowed much of the ideas of ?? Q:
Discrimination occurs ?? Q:
Gender assignment is based on ?? Q:
According to Gordon Allport's theory of contact ?? Q:
According to the cognitive development theory children learn gender roles according to ?? Q:
To assign uniform characteristics to an entire group of people without allowing for individual differences is called ?? Q:
The subordinate position of women in decision making may result from ?? Q:
Which of the following processes includes isolation of the minority population ?? Q:
Meads work in New Guinea indicated that ?? Q:
Minority groups ?? Q:
Males ?? Q:
A minority group consists of ?? Q:
The basic assertion of ageism is that ?? Q:
As of the late 1990s ?? Q:
A study of male identical twins one of whom had been castrated by accident during circumcision and treated as a little girl until puberty showed that ?? Q:
Pluralist societies depend upon one of the following for their existence ?? Q:
Latino neighbourhoods have prospered because ?? Q:
The most recent view of black family problems is that they are a result of ?? Q:
The difference in attitudes of whites and African Americans is related to ?? Q:
Android is developed by ?? Q:
What is an activity in android ?? Q:
What is the use of content provider in Android ?? Q:
What is splash screen in android ?? Q:
Android web browser is based on ?? Q:
Which programming language is used for Android Application Development ?? Q:
What is an interface in Android ?? Q:
For creating user interface in Android you have to use ?? Q:
What does the src folder contain ?? Q:
What is fragment life cycle in android ?? Q:
What is Manifest.xml in Android ?? Q:
What are the layouts available in Android ?? Q:
What is the function of emulator in android ?? Q:
What is APK in android ?? Q:
What is application class in android ?? Q:
The directory made for xml file during android app development is ?? Q:
Android SMS is stored in which format ?? Q:
For creating google map which method is overridden ?? Q:
What is the life cycle of services in android ?? Q:
How to get current location in Android ?? Q:
How many threads are there in asyncTask in Android ?? Q:
What is log message in Android ?? Q:
Android application framework accesses the libraries through ?? Q:
Is it possible activity without UI in Android ?? Q:
Which of the following is NOT a state in the lifecycle of a service ?? Q:
What Are The Functionalities In AsyncTask In Android ?? Q:
How to get a response from an activity in Android ?? Q:
How can we stop the services in android ?? Q:
On which of the following developers can test the application during developing the android application ?? Q:
Which of the following is the built in database of Android ?? Q:
Which of the following android library provides access to the database ?? Q:
Which method should you use to start a sub-activity ?? Q:
Which of the following tools creates certificates for signing Android applications ?? Q:
What is the 9 patch tool in Android ?? Q:
GCM in Android stands for ?? Q:
Which piece of code used in Android is not open source ?? Q:
How Many Levels Of Securities Are In Android ?? Q:
In which technique we can refresh the dynamic content in Android ?? Q:
Discrimination is ?? Q:
Standard English and the music of music This belief is an example of ?? Q:
Which statement is false regarding prejudice ?? Q:
The small number of black managers and coaches in professional baseball and football is an example of ?? Q:
Members of an ethnic group ?? Q:
Which statement is an example of stereotyping ?? Q:
Scientists agree that ?? Q:
The merging of majority and minority groups as happened in Brazil is called ?? Q:
Dominant groups tend to use all but which of the following methods in dealing with minorities ?? Q:
The Cuban community in Miami is an example of ?? Q:
Minorities have reacted to domination by developing goals that may be called ?? Q:
Maintaining a group’s distinctive customs and identity is called ?? Q:
The term Minority may be defined as ?? Q:
An ascribed status that a person cannot change is ?? Q:
The smallest percentage of the poor consists of ?? Q:
Human races reflect ?? Q:
The Marxian model of class structure divided the population into ?? Q:
In sociological studies of race and ethnic relations ?? Q:
Prejudice persists because it ?? Q:
Which statement is FALSE ?? Q:
The importance of status is supported by ?? Q:
The important point about biological and cultural differences among people is ?? Q:
Individuals who hold lesser positions and make less money than their parents are displaying ?? Q:
Functionalist theorists view stratification system as ?? Q:
The New Class is characterized as consisting of ?? Q:
The ultimate effect of stratification systems is to ?? Q:
Subdued religious rituals which appeal to upper-middle -class Protestants are the hallmark of which of the following denominations ?? Q:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an upwardly mobile individual ?? Q:
The rise of social classes is almost always associated with the development of ?? Q:
Status inconsistency is defined as ?? Q:
Societies with landed gentry and inherited titles resemble ?? Q:
Power is exercised in ?? Q:
The text primarily applied Weber,s notion of status to ?? Q:
The overall poverty rate is highest among ?? Q:
Structural functionalism is the intellectual descendent of ?? Q:
The most fundamental factor(s)in stratification is (are) ?? Q:
There is inequality among the Siriono of Bolivia in that ?? Q:
Taxes may be considered ?? Q:
The conflict theory of inequality is based on the work of ?? Q:
Which occupational categories received the greatest increase in compensation in the 1990s ?? Q:
The participants in a market include ?? Q:
Which of the following is NOT within the secondary economic sector ?? Q:
Political science has taken a turn toward the social sciences in its studies of ?? Q:
Corporations wield power through ?? Q:
If a broad spectrum of the population is surveyed at a given time the study is called ?? Q:
The difference between an average worker’s salary and that of the average CEO has ?? Q:
An accountant is part of which sector ?? Q:
In economic terms every action entail ?? Q:
Products of the economy used in production as opposed to gifts of nature are ?? Q:
Economists chart the limits of resources and technology on output through ?? Q:
The cottage or putting-out system refers to ?? Q:
Property is defined in terms of rights of ?? Q:
What kind of labor does the craft method require ?? Q:
The most numerous forms of business ownership in the United States is the ?? Q:
What percent of total work hours must be used to fix errors that occur on the assembly line in mass-production plants ?? Q:
The purpose of separating management from ownership is to ?? Q:
Lean production ?? Q:
Who really owns the corporation? the ?? Q:
The average CEO’s salary in 2005 was ?? Q:
The United Nations ?? Q:
What percentage of American business revenues do corporation represent ?? Q:
The end of the Cold war ?? Q:
Industrialization was accompanied by ?? Q:
Foreign aid is an instrument of ?? Q:
Money is ?? Q:
The Treaty of Westphalia established ?? Q:
Another way of talking about opportunity costs might be as ?? Q:
In the perspective of realism High Politics refers to ?? Q:
An example of resource versatility is ?? Q:
The pivotal institution of government ?? Q:
The practice of U.S corporations’ moving’s their production facilities abroad is called ?? Q:
The instruments of foreign policy may be defined as ?? Q:
To use up the final products of production is to ?? Q:
Entities such as the U.N and the European Economic Community (Common Market) are classed as ?? Q:
The totality of the phenomenon under study is called the ?? Q:
American military policy has been built on ?? Q:
The most experimental of the social sciences is ?? Q:
American foreign aid after World War II ?? Q:
Furnishing historical data about past societies with no written records is the task of ?? Q:
Italy has had many changes in political leadership since World War II However economic and legal specialists keep the nation going We would call their authority ?? Q:
The author of a famous treatise on the origin of the state characterized existence in the State of Nature as ?? Q:
Political control refers to ?? Q:
The view that nationalism would wither away was held by ?? Q:
The state has the following relationship to force ?? Q:
The first European people to form a nation were is ?? Q:
Political control ?? Q:
In the U.S the military is ?? Q:
The opposite of a nuclear family is the ?? Q:
The emergence of the sate as a result of a “social contract” is the hypothesis found in the work of ?? Q:
The legitimate possession of power is a definition of ?? Q:
The sate differs from all the other institutions in that ?? Q:
The view that the state has emerged to protect the rights of a privileged few has been expressed by philosophers of which school of thought ?? Q:
Legal-rational authority tends to be characteristic of ?? Q:
The most important of government is to ?? Q:
A person affected by nationalism ?? Q:
Even in a democracy the state can ?? Q:
Marx believed that the state would vanish when ?? Q:
The forces and processes revolving around government is policies and actions are called ?? Q:
Functionalists approach the state as a tool to ?? What is the general term for buying and selling process that is supported by electronic means?E-commerce (electronic commerce) is the buying and selling of goods and services, or the transmitting of funds or data, over an electronic network, primarily the internet.
Is the general term for buying and selling?Electronic commerce or rather Ecommerce is appropriate answer.
What is the general term used for purchasing products through the Internet?Ecommerce involves the purchase and sale of goods and services online and is actually just one part of an ebusiness.
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